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Date Posted Question Category View
122nd July 2019 10:44PM

reference Tenancy Agreement (TA) and legal right for rented property in London UK.

We are renting the property through an Estate Agency (1) . Landlord has instructed another Estate Agency (2) to carry out viewings with the aim to sell the property. We have given our availability, asked to access the property only with our permission. Our CCTV camera has recorded two persons (one is estate agent, as she holds lots of keys) in the property on 17/07 without having received notice and giving permission of access. Following this viewing we have noticed a long crack on the window glass, the CCTV recorded one visitor opening the window.

We have sent an e-mail to our Estate Agency (1) with CCTV video, asked to identify people and who is liable for the damage of window glass. Estate Agency is ignoring our e-mail and questions.

- Can this be considered as a breach in the signed Tenancy Agreement and can we terminate it with 28 days notice?

- Who is responsible of the damage, since the persons have not been identified?

- Is this consider a criminal or civil trespass?

- What are my rights since Landlord and my Estate Agency (1) have not provided identity of persons entered in the property?

Landlord View
222nd July 2019 09:45PM

Overpayments made by Ex employer who now wants it back but nothing in my contract about repaying over payments so do I have to pay?

Employment View
322nd July 2019 06:19PM

I was arrested at work last week. I pleaded guilty and was released by d Police. Just received letter from previous employer telling me that they are investigating my case. I assumed i was already sacked straight away. Why it took them a week to inform me that they are investigating. Is this Legal?

Employment View
422nd July 2019 05:33PM

My first question is can I get a simple answer free ?

Second question. here is the scenario which hopefully can get a simple answer.

Sally Evensen

Sun, 21 Jul, 14:14 (1 day ago)

to lawyers


In 2005 I helped my son get a mortgage by agreeing to be a guarantor. He now wants to remortgage in his sole name. I find now my name is also on the title and am told we are “tenants in common.”

Does this mean I own a share ? I never expected to own any part of it and he has made every mortgage payment himself. My husband was also a guarantor and his name is also on the title but he died last year. My husband and I never expected to see a penny from this and had just assumed we were back up in case our son defaulted on the mortgage. We were not given any advice at the time by solicitors . We were not advised to get a Declaration of Trust and had a verbal agreement. My son and I are not in dispute about this and I feel I should not have to pay capital gains or that he should have to pay stamp duty as no money is changing hands.

But if I do own a share it means I may be liable to capital gains. I didn’t realise when I signed on as mortgage guarantor that this meant I might own a share of the property. I wish my son to own it outright, take my name off the title. Please advise.

Many thanks Sally Evensen

Do not knowView
522nd July 2019 04:22PM

Hi,I sold a car to a friend and released the car before payment with the promise to pay for it end of the month ,now almost 4months on still hasn't and doesn't have any intention to pay after many promises ,he has since sold the vehicle ,any chance of a claim pleaser

Sale of GoodsView
622nd July 2019 12:10PM

hi i am in the process of separating from my partner - he wants to buy me out of the house but cant raise the £105,000 needed. He has suggested he pays me £50,000 and then pay the remaining £55,000 owed over 10 years and paid monthly. Ive said it would have to be drawn up legally but im still worried if something happens like if he lost his job. How can i protect myself to ensure i get the money thanks

Family & MatrimonialView
722nd July 2019 12:08PM

In August 2014 I moved in with my partner who at that point owned some of a flat as part of a shared ownership scheme. I was paying rent and splitting bills since moving in.

In 2015 we decided to purchase the rest of the flat together and both go onto the mortgage. We signed an agreement that she owned 75% od the house and I owned 25%. As she had already contributed with deposit my payments would be 29% of the monthly mortgage amount rather than 25%.

All other expense related to the house we have split 50/50 – ie bills as well as a number of repairs, monthly service charge to freeholder, ground rent, and recently a new washing machine.

We are not married. As we are separating now and selling the house, we need to determine how to divide ownership. We are seeking £600K for the house, and there is about £265K left on the mortgage. I believe the amount should be £600K - £265K – 10K (expenses) = £325, which we’d split 75/25. She believes otherwise and thinks it should be more based upon how much I’ve paid towards mortgage. Preferred option for both of us would be for her to buy out m share but we’d first need to agree how on the amount.

Family & MatrimonialView
822nd July 2019 11:08AM

My tenant left my flat without telling me, with a debts of 6150 pounds .I don't know what to do to get my money back ?thank you.

Landlord View
921st July 2019 09:20PM

Can I will have additions made when one of the will writers has dementia?

Wills & EstatesView
1021st July 2019 09:19PM

a friend of mine has been issued a DCMA on an image she uses. the image in question has generic simularities at best to the origonal, and is not a copy - what are her options?

Copyright LawView

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